to add a more narrowed-down starting point, i recommend everyone to look into epistemology. much of this follows from there

not sure how common a view this is but personally i find being well versed in art/literary/architectural history is a sign of a very well read person. knowledge in these areas usually comes hand in hand with trivia knowledge as well.

this is correct but i think op is asking the wrong question.

at least from a mathematical perspective, the claim that pi contains any finite string is only a half-baked version of the conjecture with that implication. the property tied to this is the normality of pi which is actually about whether the digits present in pi are uniformly distributed or not.

from this angle, the given example only shows that a base 2 string contains no digits greater than 1 but the question of whether the 1s and 0s present are uniformly distributed remains unanswered. if they are uniformly distributed (which is unknown) the implication does follow that every possible finite string containing only 1s and 0s is contained within, even if interpreted as a base 10 string while still base 2. base 3 pi would similarly contain every possible finite string containing only the digits 0-2, even when interpreted in base 10 etc. if it is true in any one base it is true in all bases for their corresponding digits

speaking and typing are not comparable whatsoever

bro what are you on about. do you really think there were no equivalent problems back then weve since solved? i cant examplify because i was not alive at that time and im not read up enough but to me its obvious every time period will have their own challenges, and stop putting words in ppls mouths lol

suggestions off the top of my head are countries with or near significant colonial influences, eg madagascar and indonesia seem to be pretty similar across the board

although far from comprehensive such is the case of languages listed on wiktionarys translations dropdown on the english entries of the countries at least

the only notable exception i spotted is the navajo name for indonesia apparently being “Kéyah Dah Ndaaʼeełí Łání” which is quite interesting and i dont really have an explanation for that discrepancy (perhaps its pronounced similarly and orthography just isnt idunno) but navajo isnt a national language anywhere anyways so it doesnt really matter for the original question

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